Let \(E\) and \(F\) be two partially ordered sets
\(f\in F^E\) is an isotone function when it’s order-compatible/order-preserving.
\(\bigwedge\limits_{e_1,e_2\in E}e_1\leq_{E}e_2\implies f(e_1)\leq_{F} f(e_2)\equiv \bigwedge\limits_{e_1\in E}\bigwedge\limits_{e_1\leq_{E}e_2}f(e_1)\leq_{F} f(e_2)\)
I’ve forgone bounded quantification for indexed conjunction
here:
\(\bigwedge\limits_{x\in
X}\phi(x)\equiv\forall x (x\in X\implies\phi(x))\). I did that to
make some formal deductions below much clearer. It also makes the logic
sentences more concise,
For, \(y\in F\), \(\downarrow y\) is the principal down-set of \(F\) generated by \(y\in F\).
\(\downarrow y = \{y^{\prime}\mid y^{\prime}\in F, y^{\prime}\leq_{F} y\}\)
\(E^{\prime}\subseteq E\) is a down-set of \(E\) when it contains all the principal down-sets generated by its members. Downward closure can be expressed in plain set algebra as well: \((\bigcup_{e\in E^{\prime}}\downarrow e)\subseteq E^{\prime}\). And, down-sets are also called ideals.
\(\bigwedge\limits_{e,e^{\prime}\in E}e\in E^{\prime}\land e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e\implies e^{\prime}\in E^{\prime}\equiv \bigwedge\limits_{e\in E^{\prime}} \downarrow e \subseteq E^{\prime} \equiv \bigwedge\limits_{e\in E^{\prime}}\bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e} e^{\prime}\in E^{\prime}\)
\(f^{\leftarrow}(F^{\prime})\) is the inverse image of \(F^{\prime}\subseteq F\).
\(f^{\leftarrow}(F^{\prime})=\{e\mid e\in E, f(e)\in F^{\prime}\}\)
\(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\) is the inverse image of the principal down-set generated by \(y\in F\).
\(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)=\{e\mid e\in E, f(e)\in \downarrow y\}=\{e\mid e\in E, f(e)\leq_{F} y\}\)
Here's a simple result I’d read earlier
this year. These two sentences are equivalent:
\(f\) is
isotone.
For all \(y\in F\), \(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\) is a
down-set of \(E\).
I proved it some time back. I figured that I’d share the proof because I used an interesting inference rule/axiom that's similar to universal elimination. It looks pretty cool when mixed with this quantifier-free logic you see me using presently.
Assume sentence one: \(f\) is isotone. \(e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\) if and only if \(f(e)\leq_{F}y\). Now, consider another \(e^{\prime}\in E\). Because \(f\) is isotone, if \(e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e\), then \(f(e^{\prime})\leq_F f(e)\). And, because the partial order \(\leq_F\) is transitive, \(f(e^{\prime})\leq_F y\). So, an arbitrarily picked \(e^{\prime}\in E\) is a member of \(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\) whenever \(e^{\prime}\leq e\) for all \(e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\). So, \(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\) is a down-set.
What about the converse?
First, express the second sentence as a big conjunction.
\(\bigwedge\limits_{y\in F} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e} e^{\prime}\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\)
Remember that \(e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)\iff f(e)\leq_F y)\).
\(\bigwedge\limits_{y\in F} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e} f(e^{\prime})\leq_F y\)
Note that \(X_1\subseteq X_2 \implies
\left( \bigwedge\limits_{x\in X_2}\phi(x) \implies
\bigwedge\limits_{x\in X_1}\phi(x) \right)\).
And, conveniently, \(\text{range}(f)\subseteq
F\).
\(\bigwedge\limits_{y\in \text{range}(f)} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e} f(e^{\prime})\leq_F y\)
Note that for \(f\in B^{A}\)
\(\bigwedge\limits_{b\in\text{range}(f)}\phi(b)\iff \bigwedge\limits_{a\in\text{domain}(f)}\phi(f(a))\)
That’s because \(\text{range}(f)=\{f(a)\mid
a\in\text{domain}(f)\}\)
\(\bigwedge\limits_{x\in E} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e} f(e^{\prime})\leq_F f(x)\)
Recall the definition of \(f^{\leftarrow}\).
\(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow y)=\{e\mid e\in E, f(e)\leq_{F} y\}\)
Obviously, \(x\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))\) because it’s a member of \(E\) and \(f(x)\leq_F f(x)\)
So,
\(\bigwedge\limits_{x\in E} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} e}\phi(x,e,e^{\prime})\equiv \bigwedge\limits_{x\in E} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} x} \phi(x,x,e^{\prime})\)
Notice that this is still essentially an application of the "\(X_1\subseteq X_2\implies\dots\)" rule used earlier.
\(\bigwedge\limits_{x\in E} \hspace{0.125cm} \bigwedge\limits_{e^{\prime}\leq_{E} x} f(e^{\prime})\leq_{F} f(x)\)
Finally, the definition of an isotone function is reached.
Here’s the book’s proof of the converse, roughly:
For all \(x,x^{\prime}\in E\), \(x^{\prime}\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x)) \iff f(x^{\prime})\leq_F f(x)\). So, for all \(x\in E\), \(x\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))\). Pick some \(x\in E\). Now, pick some \(x^{\prime}\in E\) so that \(x^{\prime}\leq_{E}x\). Because \(f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))\) is a down-set (by assumption), \(x^{\prime}\in f^{\leftarrow}(\downarrow f(x))\) as well, which in turn implies that \(f(x^{\prime})\leq f(x)\). So \(f\) is isotone.
I wrote this more as a demonstration of the interesting inference rule. Otherwise, I think the book’s proof is more concise.